James Milroy: Language Change and Variation
What is more common in language uniformity or variability?
In language variability is more common. We can make reference to a Milroy’s quote: ‘[...] at any given time language is variable’
What kinds of variability exist?
Geographical, social and historical.
How do we decide if a particular group of speakers belong to a particular dialect or language?
In the majority of the case it is clear. We can observe their Grammar, Phonetics, Linguistics, and also observe the Geographic, Historical and Social aspects of their language.Saussure emphasized the importance of synchronic descriptions of languages rather than diachronic. He and his disciples (structuralists) focused on language at different periods as finite entities. Is this reasonable?
No, I think that it is unreasonable because languages are changeable; they change all the time, so it is better to study diachronic linguistics to know the changes between periods rather than study a particular period.The unattested states of language were seen as transitional stages in which the structure of a language was, as it were, disturbed. This made linguistic change look abnormal. Is it abnormal?
Linguistic change is not abnormal- languages naturally undergo changes and transitional evolution. These changes don’t reflect a disturbed structure of a language they simply show us that languages have a progress to adapt to every situation it face up to.
Milroy (1992: 3) says “the equation of uniformity with structuredness or regularity is most evident in popular (non-professional) attitudes to language: one variety –usually a standard language – is considered to be correct and regular, and others –usually ‘non-standard’ dialects – are thought to be incorrect, irregular, ungrammatical and deviant. Furthermore, linguistic changes in progress are commonly perceived as ‘errors’. Thus although everyone knows that language is variable, many people believe that invariance is nonetheless to be desired, and professional scholars of language have not been immune to the consequences of these same beliefs.”
Can you think of any example of non-professional attitudes to your own language?
In my matternal languages, which are Spanish and Valenciano/Catalán, we could find a lot of examples of non-professional attitudes.
Why does Milroy use “scare quotes” around non-standard and errors?
Milroy uses “scare quotes” to show us that he doesn’t accept the term. He uses them because the equation of uniformity with structuredness or regularity is most evident in non-professional (popular) attitudes to language: one variety is considered to be correct and regular but others (non-standard) are considered to be ungrammatical. Linguistic changes in progress are commonly perceived as “errors”.
Are non-standard dialects “incorrect, irregular, ungrammatical and deviant.”?
Although non-standard dialects are not considered to have institutional support that doesn’t mean that those dialects have their own vocabulary and expression, their own grammar and their own speech. We know that they are not correct but I think we can accept them.
Which of these systems is more irregular? Why?
Myself Yourself Himself Herself Ourselves Themselves |
Myself Yourself Hisself Herself Ourselves Theirselves |
The first column is used as the standard system but that does not mean that it is the most regular one. The second column is more regular than the first because the words are all composed of the possessive form of the pronouns. We have never noticed it because we have always learnt the standard style, however, one day, when I was teaching it to a child he asked me why they are formed in the second way and not in the first one and I realised that the second form is more regular.
“… much of the change generally accepted body of knowledge on which theories of change are based depends on quite narrow interpretations of written data and decontextualized citation forms (whether written or spoken), rather than on observation of spoken language in context (situated speech). (Milroy 1992: 5) Why do you think this is so?
I believe that this is due to the extreme variability of spoken language in context.
Any description of a language involves norms? Think of the descriptions of your own language. Why is this so? For example: He ate the pie already is considered to be non-standard in which variety of English and perfectly acceptable in which other?
We know that any description of a language involves rules and norms but when we are speaking that rules are not considered. We have a tendency to make ‘errors’ in speech, but most of the people who do it know that they are not following the correct rule.
What is the difference between descriptive and prescriptive grammars?
Descriptive Grammar: A descriptive grammar looks at the way a language is actually used by its speakers and then attempts to analyse it and formulate rules about the structure. Descriptive grammar does not deal with what is good or bad language use; forms and structures that might not be used by speakers of Standard English would be regarded as valid and included. It is a grammar based on the way a language actually is and not how some think it should be.
Prescriptive Grammar: A prescriptive grammar lays out rules about the structure of a language. Unlike a descriptive grammar it deals with what the grammarian believes to be right and wrong, good or bad language use; not following the rules will generate incorrect language. (http://www.english-for-students.com/Descriptive-and-Prescriptive.html)Weinreich, Labov and Herzog’s (1968) empirical foundations of language change:
Constraints: what changes are possible and what are not. Embedding: how change spreads from a central point through a speech community Evaluation: social responses to language change (prestige overt and covert attitudes to language, linguistic stereotyping and notions on correctness). Transition: “the intervening stages which can be observed, or which must be posited, between any two forms of a language defined for a language community at different times” Weinreich, Labov and Herzog 1968: 101) Actuation: Why particular changes take place at a particular timeWhat do you think the “prestige motivation for change” and the “solidarity constraint” mean? How are they opposed?
The prestige motivation for change is the way we view our language and how other people use it and solidarity constraint refers the way in which we adapt our language depending on the social context in which we find ourselves. These concepts are opposed because the first one refers to the desire of having a social status and the second one refers to the desire of being accepted by others.Sound change: post-vocalic /r/ in New York/ The change from long ā to ō in some dialects of English.
Post-vocalic /r/ in New York: Many of us who speak English as a native language pronounce words like darling, far, bore or near the same as we write them: with vowel followed by r in the same syllable. But there are many other English speakers who do not pronounce the r - sound in this place (called ‘postvocalic r’) - although they have the sound everywhere else, like at the beginning of a word. American speakers who most commonly drop the r (in what follows we’ll occasionally call this the ‘r-less’ pronunciation) are those from Eastern New England and parts of the South, particularly the coastal area where the old ‘plantation’ culture once existed. It is also part of Black English Vernacular speech. Until recently, dropping the r was part of New York speech as well, though more and more New Yorkers seem to be perceiving it as ‘vulgar’ and avoiding this pronunciation.
http://www.pbs.org/speak/seatosea/americanvarieties/southern/dahlingThe change from long ā to ō in some dialects of English: The father-bother merger is a merger of the Early Modern English vowels /ɑː/ and /ɒ/ that occurs in almost all varieties of North American English (exceptions are accents in north-eastern New England, such as the Boston accent, and in New York City). In those accents with the merger father and bother rhyme, and Kahn and con are homophonous as [kɑn]. Unrounding of EME /ɒ/ is found also in Norwich, the West Country, and the West Midlands and in Hiberno-English, but apparently with no phonemic merger.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phonological_history_of_English_low_back_vowels#Father.E2.80.93bother_mergerActuation: Why did /k/ palatalize before certain front vowels? PrsE: cheese, German käse English/Norse doublets shirt/skirt?
Because the place and degree of palatization of words depend on the different meaning between the word doublets.What is the biological metaphor in language change?
The biological metaphor in language change can also be related to the fact that languages are passed from one generation to the next, evolving step by step.What is the difference between internal and external histories of a language?
Internal is the change caused by structural requirements of the language, or it does not in which case one speaks of externally motivated change. Internally motivated change usually leads to balance in the system, the removal of marked elements, the analogical spread of regular forms or the like. As language consists of various modules on various levels, a change in one quarter may lead to an imbalance in another and provoke a further change. With the current kind of change the available structure of the language plays an important role. For instance English has maintained a distinction in voice among interdental fricatives as seen in teeth /ti:þ/ and teethe /ti:ð/ although the functional load is very slight.http://www.uni-due.de/SHE/HE_InternalExternal.htm
Look up Neogrammarians and lexical diffusion. Why are they often found in the same paragraph or chapter?
The terms are often found in the same paragraph because the theory of lexical diffusion is opposed to the Neogrammarian hypothesis. As Milroy explains, lexical diffusion (a theory proposed by William Wang in 1969) refers to the fact that all sound changes derive from a variation of a single word or a small group of words that later affects other words with similar characteristics, but don’t necessarily have an effect on all words that they potentially could do. The Neogrammarian hypothesis states that a given sound change applies to all words with related features simultaneously. Milroy tells us that sound changes have normally been observed to spread gradually through the lexicon (lexical diffusion), and that there is no evidence to support the Neogrammarian assumption.Look up social norm-enforcement, childish errors and slips of the tongue. What have they to do with language change?
Norm enforcement: The norm enforcement function derives from the idea that certain public tasks can be delegated to international organizations to perform. Key factor: it depends on voluntary compliance -- i.e. legitimacy. Unlike a national government, where if a norm is violated intentionally, a violator can be thrown in jail or assessed a collectable fine (use of coercion), or given tax breaks or government investment to provide an incentive to comply (utilitarian power), the only method of imposing compliance at the international level is a form of international "shaming." As in a small community, this often works.
http://classes.maxwell.syr.edu/intlmgt/sessions/norm/Normenforcementlecture.htm
Childish errors: children often make mistakes due to their lack of knowledge of possible linguistic irregularities.
Slips of the tongue: is an error in speaking in which a word is pronounced incorrectly, or in which the speaker says something unintentionally.
http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/slip+of+the+tongue
Academic year 2008/2009
© Raúl Gisbert Cantó
giscan@alumni.uv.es
Universitat de València Press