1.What is more common in language uniformity or variability?
Variability is more common than uniformity in a language because
the language is something variable, that is in movement ,that
is it is always exposed to the changes.
2.What kinds of variability exist?
There are three main kinds of variability:
·
Register: contextually based variability
·
Dialect: geographical variability
·
Social: a speech can be rude or polite.
3.How do we decide if a particular group of speakers belong to
a particular dialect or language?
In some cases it is clear thanks to the “shibboleth”, that
is something that gives you a way to know where someone is from. (such as the accent, the pronunciation, some specific words,
sentences...)
4.Saussure emphasized the importance of synchronic descriptions of
languages rather than diachronic. He and his disciples (structuralists)
focused on language at different periods as finite entities. Is this
reasonable?
·
Synchronic: relating to a language as it is
at a particular point in time.
·
Diachronic: relating to the way a language
has developed over time.
So, from my point of view it isn’t reasonable because the language is
changing and developing all the time, in this way the best would be studying the language from
a diachronic point, in order to obtain good information about the language and
its change.
5.The unattested states of language were seen as transitional
stages in which the structure of a language was, as it were, disturbed. This
made linguistic change look abnormal. Is it abnormal?
I think that linguistic change is not abnormal because the change
is a very important
characteristic of any language,it
couldn’t be named without being united to any kind of change(social,historical...),although it sometimes seems to be
disturbed.
6.Milroy
(1992: 3) says “the equation of uniformity with structuredness
or regularity is most evident in popular (non-professional) attitudes to
language: one variety –usually a standard language – is considered to be
correct and regular, and others –usually ‘non-standard’ dialects – are thought
to be incorrect, irregular, ungrammatical and deviant. Furthermore, linguistic
changes in progress are commonly perceived as ‘errors’. Thus
although everyone knows that language is variable, many people believe that
invariance is nonetheless to be desired, and professional scholars of language
have not been immune to the consequences of these same beliefs.”
Can you think of any example of
non-professional attitudes to your own language?
In any language could be found non-professional attitudes, an
example of them are the following words of my own language:
-“haiga”-- haya
-“me sa caio”—se
me ha caído
-“asin”-- así
-“mercao”-- mercado
-“ayer ha muerto”—ayer murió
8.Why does Milroy use “scare quotes” around non-standard and
errors?
Milroy use “scare quotes” around non-standard and errors to show that the word isn’t grammatically correct, however, the word with the error is often used by
people.
9.Are non-standard dialects “incorrect, irregular,
ungrammatical and deviant.”?
I hold the point of view that non-standard dialects are incorrect,
irregular because they are grammatically incorrect, for this reason, at the
same time they are also ungrammatical. However, I don’t think that these
non-standard dialects are deviant because they are a common attitude only when
we speak because they are like a tendency due to some factors. (Accent, social
environment...)
But, on the other hand, there is a problem: that some very liberal
and modern people don’t talk about errors, everything they say is correct for
them.
10. Which of
these systems is more irregular? Why?
Myself Yourself Himself Herself Ourselves Themselves |
Myself Yourself Hisself Herself Ourselves Theirselves |
The second column is more regular than the
first one because the terms “hisself” and “theirselves” aren’t grammatically correct, however, they
are often used by the speaker
because of the natural tendency. On the contrary, the pronouns of
the first column
are accepted as grammatically correct.
“… much of the
change generally accepted body of knowledge on which theories of change are
based depends on quite narrow interpretations of written data and econtexutalized citation forms (whether written or spoken),
rather than on observation of spoken language in context (situated speech).
(Milroy 1992: 5) Why do you think this is so?
This is what I have said
before referred to the use that each speaker make of the language ,so ,many
people tend to use the language without following the rules and the norms and
often use colloquialism, doing his/her own language and this is what can
disturb the language
11.Any
description of a language involves norms? Think of the descriptions of
your own language. Why is this so? For example: He ate the pie already
is considered to be non-standard in which variety of English and perfectly
acceptable in which other?
We know that any language involves norms and rules that must be
followed to speak a good language, but of course, these norms and rules are
sometimes forgotten by the speaker because of the variety, the register...etc,
in other words, in a colloquial register we tend to don’t keep in mind the
rules. In this way,” He ate the pie already” must be said: “he has already eaten the pie”.
12. What is
the difference between descriptive and prescriptive grammars?
·
A descriptive grammar looks at
the way a language is actually used by its speakers and then attempts to
analyse it and formulate rules about the structure. Descriptive grammar does
not deal with what is good or bad language use; forms and structures that might
not be used by speakers of Standard English would be
regarded as valid and included. It is a grammar based on the way a language
actually is and not how some think it should be.
·
A prescriptive grammar lays out
rules about the structure of a language. Unlike a descriptive grammar it deals
with what the grammarian believes to be right and wrong, good or bad language
use; not following the rules will generate incorrect language. Both types of
grammar have their supporters and their detractors, which in all probability
suggest that both have their strengths and weaknesses.
http://www.usingenglish.com/glossary/prescriptive-grammar.html
13.What do you think the “prestige motivation for change” and
the “solidarity constraint” mean? How are they opposed?
I think that the prestige motivation for change could be the way
the speaker use and change the language in order to show thought the language
his or her superior social status, so we tend
to usea specific terminology.
And from my point of view is the way the
speaker adapt the language to the situation and to the circumstances,
depending on the social context: job, friends, family...
So, it could be said that the prestige motivation for change and the solidarity constraint are opposed in aims. In other words, the
process in both is the change of the language, but in the first one the speaker
changes it in order to show a superior status, whereas in the second one, the
speaker tries to fit in a “group”.
14.Sound
change: post-vocalic /r/ in New York. The change from long
ā to ō in some dialects of English.
·
Post-vocalic /r/ in
New York
English
pronunciation is divided into two main accent groups: A rhotic (pronounced /ˈroʊtɪk/) speaker pronounces
the letter R in hard or water. A non-rhotic
speaker does not. In other words, rhotic speakers
pronounce written /r/ in all positions, while non-rhotic speakers pronounce /r/ only if it is followed by a vowel sound in
the same syllable (see "linking and intrusive R").
In linguistic terms, non-rhotic accents are said to exclude the phoneme /r/ from
the syllable
coda. This is commonly referred to as the post-vocalic R, although
that term can be misleading because not all Rs that occur after vowels are
excluded in non-rhotic English. Pre-vocalic and
post-vocalic rules only hold true at the syllable level. If, within a syllable,
an R occurs post-vocalically, it is dropped from pronunciation in non-rhotic speech
·
The change from long
ā to ō in some dialects of English.
The father-bother merger is a merger of the Early Modern English vowels /ɑː/ and /ɒ/ that occurs in almost all varieties of North American English (exceptions are accents in northeastern New England, such as the Boston accent, and in New York City).[1][2][3] In those accents with the merger father and bother rhyme, and Kahn and con are homophonous as [kɑn]. Unrounding of EME /ɒ/ is found also in Norwich, the West Country, the West
and in Hiberno-English,
but apparently with no phonemic merger.
16. What is the biological
metaphor in language change?
17. What is
the difference between internal and external histories of a language?
http://www.uni-due.de/SHE/HE_InternalExternal.htm
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neogrammarian
http://www.allacademic.com/meta/p_mla_apa_research_citation/0/1/8/8/3/p18830_index.html