• Why does Milroy say that sound change appears to have no “obvious function or rational motivation”?

 

For example, to pronounce two vowels as one sound is not neither profitable nor damaging.

 

• What is/are the main difference/s between Milroy’s approach and that of the Neogrammarians?

 

The Neogrammarians’ basic axiom is that sound change is regular, without exceptions; about how sound changes, they say that it is not sudden but so slow and so slight and not noticed by speakers.

 

• According to Milroy, what is language changes dependent on?

 

The Neogrammarians tend to separate de language from their speakers, so it seems sound change be independent of them.

For Milroy it is the opposite, this aspect of sociolinguistic has necessarily to deal with speakers.

 

• Why does Milroy say that sound change actually doesn’t exist?

 

With regard to the speech sounds, Milroy says that they do not change but in the course of time one sound is substituted by another.

 

• Why does Milroy disagree with the Neogrammarians when they say that sound change is “blind”?

 

The change of the sounds is principally a process by which speakers change their language and for this reason Milroy disagrees with the Neogrammarians’ idea of “blind” sound change.

 

• What is meant by “lexical diffusion”?

 

Lexical diffusion is a socially gradual process and abrupt replacement pattern, by which a form changes and the resulting form is markedly different to the original one.